A 67-year-old gravida 4 para 4 woman underwent abdominal sacral colpopexy with synthetic mesh for pelvic organ prolapse. Past medical history includes noninsulin dependent diabetes mellitus, obesity, gout, tobacco abuse, 2 Caesarean sections, and 2 spontaneous vaginal deliveries. Other past surgical history includes carotid endarterectomy 3 years ago, 2 knee arthroscopies for torn cartilage, and breast reduction surgery when the patient was 45 years of age. On postoperative day 2, she is noted to have increasing wound drainage. She is less alert but still oriented to person and place. Vital signs are P: 106; BP: 130/90; RR: 20; T: 100.6°F; and oxygen saturation: 96% on room air. The abdominal wound is swollen and red in appearance. There is an odorless discharge that is thin and watery in consistency. Patient is taken to the operating room for opening and draining of the wound and the collection of intraoperative cultures. What is the most likely organism responsible for this clinical scenario?
